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Vismay ShahVismay Shah asked 1 year ago

Can CA in practice pay brokerage with CA having no COP and he is not working under his employment? and what’s the purpose behind clause 2 and clause 3 of part 1, schedule 1?

1 Answers
RaviRavi Staff answered 1 year ago

yes he can pay brokerage to CA not having COP
for partnership you need CA having COP
purpose is simple, collaborate and work with people who are governed by ethical principles, standards etc

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